So a land value tax system would essentially turn land ownership into leasing the right to exclusive access? Would there remain a portion of rent for the owner/leaser in order for there to be a selling price?
Since a land appraisal would probably be done annually and the tax collected annually can you imagine this scenario: one's land appraises for much more than the previous year but landowner does not have the money to pay the new higher tax? The land value tax does not account for ability to pay. Is this fair?
Thanks for your previous response it was quite helpful!